My argument is not about the transition of responsibility but the legal limit that Germany was occupied. No German could have made the decision of seceding land between 1945 and 1948.
As a side note, in 1907 Germany must have been more like Britain or the EU. Has there been a German “us”?
My argument is not about the transition of responsibility but the legal limit that Germany was occupied. No German could have made the decision of seceding land between 1945 and 1948.
As a side note, in 1907 Germany must have been more like Britain or the EU. Has there been a German “us”?