• CanadaPlus@lemmy.sdf.org
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        24 hours ago

        I actually did. I have nits to pick with the map, but the conclusion that Russia has a lot and Europe has (relatively) little is well known. And again, what does the US have to do with it?

        Reading the thread back again, you’re probably right that inequality in Europe has grown somewhat, if that was your main point.

        Edit: And your source is excellent, by the way. Very interesting. Picketty delivers.

        • pendel@feddit.org
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          30 minutes ago

          The US is so inequal that anything else on that plot is impossible to interpret. That’s why the US is relevant to mention here. Although this does not apply exclusively to the US.

          OP then mentions that inequality has not risen in the last 20 years in Europe which is wrong, but not visible in the plot,

          1. because it selectively focuses on only one metric
          2. because next to the US even an uptrend looks marginal

          And I mean it’s not even wrong in a sense that there is different ways to see it, it’s just wrong in a way that OP is actually spreading false information.

          Regarding Piketty yeah I hope some people actually read that, glad you did!